jettester97
New member
So I am looking at two coins both with a market cap of between 5 & 10 million.
They are both deflationary in that they have a maximum supply.
However one has 3% of its max supply of coins in circulation and another has 99% of its coins in circulation.
I would imagine in the long term that the coin with 99% of its coins already in circulation has less room to move up in price, especially at such a low market cap.
However, on the flipside for the coin with 3%, there is more chance for a decrease in price if all the coins are dumped on the market all at once due to inflation/oversupply.
Does anyone have any thoughts on how to approach this metric as it's interesting trying to find some middle ground i.e. is 45% good? 50%? 60%?
I don't know,
over to you guys to educate me
They are both deflationary in that they have a maximum supply.
However one has 3% of its max supply of coins in circulation and another has 99% of its coins in circulation.
I would imagine in the long term that the coin with 99% of its coins already in circulation has less room to move up in price, especially at such a low market cap.
However, on the flipside for the coin with 3%, there is more chance for a decrease in price if all the coins are dumped on the market all at once due to inflation/oversupply.
Does anyone have any thoughts on how to approach this metric as it's interesting trying to find some middle ground i.e. is 45% good? 50%? 60%?
I don't know,
over to you guys to educate me
